Legal precedent?
In short, middle aged woman gets a scope by GI with propofol sedation. 8 hours later she signs a legal contract which is notarized. 3 years later she’s claiming that the contract is not valid because she had received anesthesia.
The notary (who was also a family friend) testified that they remember her not acting out of the ordinary that day.
Patient also remembers details of the encounter where the contract was signed.
Is there a legal precedent for something like this?
Source: Student Doctor Network - Category: Universities & Medical Training Authors: Propofool123 Tags: Anesthesiology Source Type: forums
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