This month ’s toughest USMLE Step 2 question to master

< p > Getting ready for the United States Medical Licensing Examination ® (USMLE®) Step 2 is no easy feat, but we’re sharing expert insights to help give you a leg up. Take a look at the exclusive scoop on this month’s most-missed USMLE Step 2 test prep question. Think you have what it takes to rise above your peers? Test your USMLE knowledge, and view an expert v ideo explanation of the answer from Kaplan Medical. < /p > < p > Once you ’ve got this question under your belt, be sure to test your knowledge with  < a href= " http://www.ama-assn.org/ama/ama-wire/blog/USMLE_Prep/1 " target= " _self " > other posts in this series < /a > . < /p > < p > Ready. Set. Go. < /p > < p > < strong > This month ’s question that stumped most students: < /strong > < /p > < p > A 70-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with diarrhea. She describes watery stools associated with abdominal cramping for the last week. There has been no fever, nausea, or vomiting. She was hospitalized 1 month ago for community-acquired pneumonia, which was treated with ceftriaxone and azithromycin. She also has a history of watery diarrhea with abdominal cramps when she consumes milk products. Physical examination reveals lower abdominal tenderness. The initial laboratory evaluation of stool is significant for the presence of fecal leukocytes. Which of the following is the most useful step in diagnosing this patient? < /p > < p style= " margin-left:40px; " > < strong > A. < /str...
Source: AMA Wire - Category: Journals (General) Authors: Source Type: news